![]() Tuesday, May 07, 2002 |
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Sir, Are the `fatwas' contemplated by the `mullahs' of Uttar Pradesh against Muslim legislators of the Bahujan Samaj Party, calling for their social boycott, constitutionally legal and enforceable in law? Or is it an infringement of human rights under the Constitution? If they are illegal, then what action can be taken against the mullahs? Are the BSP's Muslim legislators responsible to the people who elected them or should they take permission from the mullahs to contest elections? If the courts are dubbed proactive when they comment on the conduct of the legislators, are not fatwas a slur on the legislature? If the fatwas are for genuine causes, why were they not issued against those who set the train afire in Godhra? If this tacit acceptance is not pampering the Muslim community for votes, what else is?
V.K. Sampath,
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